But while he thought on these things, behold, the angel of the LORD appeared unto him in a dream, saying, Joseph, thou son of David, fear not to take unto thee Mary thy wife: for that which is conceived in her is of the Holy Ghost
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TODAY'S TECH WILL PERMIT A VIRGIN TO BE PREGNANT WITHOUT SEXUAL INTERCOURSE THROUGH THE VAGINA. BUT SUCH ISN'T THE CASE CONCERNING BIBLICAL DAYS.
WITHOUT SPEAM FROM A MALE, A FEMALE'S CHANCE OF BECOMING PREGNANT IS ZERO! SO THE VERSE PART, "...A VIRGIN SHALL BE WITH CHILD..." IS ABSOLUTELY FALLIBLE.
IT IS IMPOSSIBLE FOR A FEMALE TO HAVE BECOME PREGNANT AND STILL BE A VIRGIN!
FOR ONE, PREGNANCY CHANGES A PREGNANT WOMAN'S BODY STRUCTURE AND CHEMISTRY. THEREFORE, SHE IS NO LONGER PURE IN BODY AND CHEMISTRY. SECOND CERTAIN ORGANS OF HERS HAVE BEEN TOUCHED (THAT IS, MADE CONTACT WITH) BY THE UNBORN, SPECIFICALLY, THE PLACETA, WHICH ALSO CARRIES WASTE FROM THE UNBORN INTO THE MOTHER'S BLOOD. THIRD, WHEN IT'S TIME TO DELIVER, THE UNBORN BREAKS THROUGH THE VAGINA, WIDENING IT BEYOND ITS NORMAL MEASURE.
OF COURSE, ANOTHER METHOD THOUSANDS OF YEARS AGO MADE IT SO THAT THE UNBORN WAS TAKEN FROM THE ABDOMEN (C-SECTION). BUT MATTHEW DOESN'T SPEAK OF SUCH MATTER CONCERNING MARY.
NEVERTHELESS, MARY WASN'T A VIRGIN DURING NOR AFTER PREGNANCY, AS SOME CHRISTIANS STILL SAY, "THE VIRGIN MARY".
SOME CHRISTIANS BELIEVE THAT AFTER MARY GAVE BIRTH TO JESUS, HER VAGINA WAS RESTRUCTURED BACK TO THE WAY IT WAS BEFORE PREGNANCY, BY GOD. THEY LOVE TO USE GOD STITCHING UP ADAM'S RIB FOR AN EXAMPLE OF GOD'S SURGERY SKILLS. WHAT ANOTHER FANTASY, PURE FANTASY!
VERSE 21 CLEARLY STATES THAT JOSEPH WAS COMMANDED TO NAME THE BOY JESUS, BECAUSE HE SHALL SAVE HIS PEOPLE FROM THEIR SINS. JESUS COMES FROM THE HEBREW WORD YESHUA, WHICH MEANS YAH IS SALVATION.
THE NAME JESUS AND THE NAME YESHUA ARE RELATED TO 2 DIFFERENT MATTERS. THE NAME JESUS IS CONCERNING WITH SAVING THE HEBREWS FROM THEIR SINS, BUT YESHUA IS CONCERNING WITH RESCUING THE HEBREWS FROM THEIR ENEMIES, LIKE THE ROMAN GOVERNMENT.
JESUS=RESCUE FROM SINS:
YESHUA=RESCUE FROM FOREIGN GOVERNMENT:
THEREFORE, THE NAME JESUS, ISN'T THE ACTUAL TRANSLATION. AND THE TRANSLATORS FROM DIFFERENT SOCIETIES GOT THE TRANSLATION WRONG! THERE WAS NO LETTER "J" IN THE HEBREW ALPHABET! THEREFORE THE NAME JESUS IS MEANINGLESS.
BUT KJV, MATTHEW CHAPTER 1 VERSES 21-23:
And she shall bring forth a son, and thou shalt call his name JESUS: for he shall save his people from their sins.
Now all this was done, that it might be fulfilled which was spoken of the Lord by the prophet, saying,
Behold, a virgin shall be with child, and shall bring forth a son, and they shall call his name Emmanuel, which being interpreted is, God with us.
VERSE 21 DOESN'T FULFILL THE SPOKEN WORD OF THE PROPHET, AS VERSE 22 SAY, IN VERSE 23. VERSE 21 SAY HIS NAME IS TO BE CALLED JESUS, BUT VERSE 23 SAY THAT HIS NAME IS TO BE CALLED EMMANUEL! SO WHICH IS HIS NAME BETWEEN THE TWO? IS IT JESUS, AS MAJORITY OF THE UNIVERSE SAY (BEWARE OF MAJORITY, THEY HAVE A TENDENCY TO BE WRONG IN MANY THINGS) OR IS HIS NAME EMMANUEL? GOD SAID WHAT HIS NAME IS, THEN AN ANGEL SAY A TOTALLY DIFFERENT NAME THAT DOESN'T EVEN HAVE CONNECTIONS WITH THE HEBREW COULTURE, IT DOES WITH THE GREEK AND ROMAN COULTURES. REMEMBER EMMANUEL IS OF THE HEBREW, BUT JESUS IS OF GREEK AND ROMAN.
SO PEOPLE PRAYING, BAPTISING, AND DO OTHER THINGS IN THE NAME OF JESUS, DEFINITELY HAVE BEEN DOING THINGS FOR A DIFFERENT SAVIOR AND NOT FOR THE MESSIAH EMMANUEL WHOM THE BIBLE CLEARLY SPEAKS OF. HERE'S A SIDE NOTE: YES, THERE ARE VARIATIONS IN THE SPELLING OF THE NAME EMMANUEL, BUT THE PRONOUNCIATION STAYS THE SAME AND SO DOES THE MEANING, BIBLICALLY.
PHOTO COURTESY OF d3m0
THERE'S NOT ONE PERSON WHO CAN PROVE FROM THE USE OF THE BIBLE THAT GOD SAID THAT THE NAME EMMANUEL WOULD BE CHANGED TO JESUS.
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